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Torah and Jewish Idea => Torah and Jewish Idea => Topic started by: Sarah on December 20, 2007, 04:25:03 PM

Title: Torah Question
Post by: Sarah on December 20, 2007, 04:25:03 PM
The Torah was a revelation given to Moses was it not?
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: Sarah on December 20, 2007, 04:27:49 PM
Then, why in the Deutronomy is Moses's death mentioned? How could he be speaking of his own death, making reference to the number of years he lived?


Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: Lisa on December 20, 2007, 04:46:07 PM
The answer to your first question is, yes.

Moses mentions his death because G-d would not allow him to enter the land of Israel.  This was because during one instance when the Israelites were complaining, G-d told Moses to speak to the rock rather than striking it with his staff.  But Moses struck the rod. 

Therefore Moses knew he would not be entering the land of Israel.  Joshua would be the one leading them in his place. 
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: Sarah on December 20, 2007, 04:55:03 PM
The answer to your first question is, yes.

Moses mentions his death because G-d would not allow him to enter the land of Israel.  This was because during one instance when the Israelites were complaining, G-d told Moses to speak to the rock rather than striking it with his staff.  But Moses struck the rod. 

Therefore Moses knew he would not be entering the land of Israel.  Joshua would be the one leading them in his place. 

So he knew he was going to pass away?
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: shemtov on December 20, 2007, 05:06:38 PM
The answer to your first question is, yes.

Moses mentions his death because G-d would not allow him to enter the land of Israel.  This was because during one instance when the Israelites were complaining, G-d told Moses to speak to the rock rather than striking it with his staff.  But Moses struck the rod. 

Therefore Moses knew he would not be entering the land of Israel.  Joshua would be the one leading them in his place. 

So he knew he was going to pass away?




Yes
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: Sarah on December 20, 2007, 05:12:55 PM
Though, Deuteronomy is made up of Moses's three sermons. So how is the entire Torah a revelation from God when it includes the spoken words of Moses?
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: Tzvi Ben Roshel1 on December 20, 2007, 08:17:54 PM
The Torah was a revelation given to Moses was it not?

The Torah was given in front of Millions of people.
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: Dexter on December 23, 2007, 09:32:20 AM
The Torah was a revelation given to Moses was it not?

The Torah was given in front of Millions of people.
1.2 Million, acorrding to the Torah.
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: kahaneloyalist on December 23, 2007, 12:56:35 PM
Devarim, is indeed Moshe speaking to the nation, but it was through Navua, all Navua takes a specific style tied into the Navi, but it is still divine.
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: OdKahaneChai on December 23, 2007, 01:54:49 PM
Devarim, is indeed Moshe speaking to the nation, but it was through Navua, all Navua takes a specific style tied into the Navi, but it is still divine.
Also, in Devarim, Moshe Rabbenu lost every last bit of his ego, and the Shechina "was in his throat," so to speak.  So all of his words were literally divine.  Also, if I'm not mistaken, even though Moshe knew he was going to die, the last parts of V'zot Hab'racha (where Moshe Rabbenu dies) were written down by Yehoshua (as instructed by Hashem).  But I could be wrong...
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: Tzvi Ben Roshel1 on December 23, 2007, 04:26:34 PM
The Torah was a revelation given to Moses was it not?

The Torah was given in front of Millions of people.
1.2 Million, acorrding to the Torah.

no, 1.2 million families maybe. According to the Torah the only ones who were counted were men ages 20-60 (who qualify for the army) + double that for the women= 1.2 million + over 60 years old + children( which were many back then) I would estimate a minimum of 7 million Jews + the eruv rav (the egyptian's).
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: jdl4ever on December 23, 2007, 07:58:14 PM
I've heard that Joshua wrote the last 8 verses of the Torah.
According to some commentaries Moses wrote the last several verses in code format and Joshua decoded them but every other verse was written by Moses.  According to my memory the commentary Ibn Ezra differs and says that Joshua wrote the last several verses in the Torah himself as well as a few other verses in the Torah that say things like "and the Cannanites were then in the Land".  It is irrelevent if Joshua wrote a few verses to complete the Torah since he was also a great Prophet and did so at the instruction of G-d as did Moses.  The Torah is called the "Torah of Moses" since the whole Torah was written by Moses except for the last verses and perhaps a few others according to the Ibn Ezra which Joshua completed.  The reason why G-d did this is probably symbolic that the Torah can't be completed until one enters the land of Israel.  G-d revealed the entire Torah to Moses and he transmitted it to Israel and to Joshua, everything about the Torah that Joshua knew was transmitted from Moses.
Title: Re: Torah Question
Post by: Lubab on December 26, 2007, 01:57:55 PM
There are two opinion in the Talmud that deal with Sarah's question.

One says that Joshua wrote those verses. Another says that Moses wrote them with tears (knowing he would later be punished and die before going into the holy land).

According to the first opinion the Torah was not given compeletely on Sinai and was completed as the events actually happened.