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Torah and Jewish Idea => Torah and Jewish Idea => Topic started by: edu on March 07, 2011, 01:58:30 AM

Title: The booty of the allies of Haman vs. the House of Haman that Mordechai Got
Post by: edu on March 07, 2011, 01:58:30 AM
In the book of Esther 9:16 after the allies of Haman are defeated it states the Jews did not send their hands against the spoils [of the war]
But Mordechai in chapter 8 does accept Haman's house.
Why in the first case they don't take the wealth of the enemy but in Mordechai's case the enemy's wealth is taken?
Although I have an answer I prefer to hear yours for the time being.
Title: Re: The booty of the allies of Haman vs. the House of Haman that Mordechai Got
Post by: muman613 on March 09, 2011, 06:00:23 PM
Shalom Edu,

I read your question and have yet to find an answer. Meanwhile you could supply us with your answer and we can consider it...

Title: Re: The booty of the allies of Haman vs. the House of Haman that Mordechai Got
Post by: edu on March 11, 2011, 07:29:52 AM
Rashi on Esther 9:10 said they didn't take the money of the allies of Haman, so as not to arouse the jealousy or envy of Achashverosh, over the new wealth.
In other words, it was a political consideration not to take the war booty.

We also find that David did take benefit from the war booty that he captured when he fought Amalek, so this is a precedent that it is allowed.
But then the question arises, if so why was G-d mad that Shaul{Saul} took part of the sheep from the war booty of Amalek. Is it because the prophet specifically told him not to do it in this situation, or is there some deeper reason which sometimes allows us to take from Amalek war booty and sometimes no.
I have yet to find the answer.
Title: Re: The booty of the allies of Haman vs. the House of Haman that Mordechai Got
Post by: Kahane-Was-Right BT on March 13, 2011, 07:39:42 PM
In the book of Esther 9:16 after the allies of Haman are defeated it states the Jews did not send their hands against the spoils [of the war]
But Mordechai in chapter 8 does accept Haman's house.
Why in the first case they don't take the wealth of the enemy but in Mordechai's case the enemy's wealth is taken?
Although I have an answer I prefer to hear yours for the time being.

Well, from the sounds of it, the first scenario is national-scale or a matter of army/organizational policy, which could be problematic and/or immoral, depending on the circumstances.   Whereas the second instance is more of a personal and individual situation by the leader and not his "troops" or the masses of Jews under his guidance.  After his conflict with haman, Mordecai seems to be within his rights to extract personal spoils from his victory over his nemesis.   Similarly in the ancient world, some Roman generals used to acquire the severed head of their foe on a spike and display it somewhere.   Certainly they did not acquire the heads of all combatants on a spike, nor did the common soldier acquire heads on spikes for display purposes.