Ask Judea Torah Show 4

[judeanoncapta]

Great questions last week.

I can't wait to hear you new ones.

[jdl4ever]

What is your profession, JNC? 

How did you become so educated in the Torah? 

I very much enjoyed your argument against the Lubovitch.  I learned that Rambam at least 10 times and didn't see all those brilliant arguments you came up with, I only came up with a few of the arguments you stated myself.  And agree with all of it except one part.  I must say that one part of your argument you made a mistake since the Rambam says that the Massiah does not have to (Einoh Sarich) ressurrect the dead and do miracles etc.  He didn't say that the Massiah won't do this as you have stated just that it is not necessary.  He calls people fools who say that the Massiah must do miracles or must ressurrect the dead, he doesn't call people fools who say that he might do such miracles.  Get my point?

How could a Rabbi from the Talmud deny the coming of Massiah.  Isn't this an heretical belief?  Is this a proof that a Rabbi who has a heretical belief may still be considered righteous?  But this contradicts the Rambam's 10 basic belief of Judaism.  I don't understand this.  Or is it not really heresy since he denies the coming of the Massiah only but doesn't deny the resurrection of the dead, the rebuilding of the Temple and a future redemption that is supposed to follow the Massiah? 

[q_q_]

I once saw an article and/or heard a shiur from rabbi bar hayyim, calling succot in the diaspora, 9 days.

Why would he consider simchat torah in the diaspora, to be a day of succot?
Or even shmini atzeret.

From what I understand, succot is 7 days in israel and 8 days in the diaspora.

It is stated in tenach that succot is 7 days.  Yes, it then says "on the 8th day", but that is not succot. That would be 8th day of festivities.

Mishna Moed is a bit clearer

In the diaspora, we follow the customs of our ancestors, on which, on the day that is the 22 Tishri, there is a safek(doubt) as to whether it is really the 22nd, or whether it is the 21st. So we keep both, but not to the extent that one would detract from the other.

A proof that Shmini atzeret is not succot, is that on succot we have to sit in the succah.  in israel, where we follow the custom of where there is no doubt, where we know that "22nd tishri is 22nd tishri".   *Nobody* sits in the succah.
That is because Shmini Atzeret is not Sukkot (btw, and vice versa - SK is not SA).
Whereas in the diaspora, some do sit some don't sit.

They are not just "independent" and "distinct". But one is not the other.
In the diaspora, it is not even an overlap of succot and SA,it is a (custom of a) doubt as to which it is.

thanks

Note- From what I have heard, nobody sits in the succah.  Is that correct?  If not, then it would break some of my argument.  But I think there is something in the talmud to back that up, about in the diaspora whether you sit in the succa or not, because of the doubt. Suggesting that in israel you don't.

[Kahane-Was-Right BT]

Did the Rambam consider settling the land of Israel a mitzvah?  Do we have proof of this outside of the Ramban saying such and such about Rambam's opinions?  And are you still doing your show?

[q_q_]

Would I be correct in thinking that you consider the ashkenazi kamatz to be correct (like o in boris), and the Sefaradim to be wrong in having 2 pronounciations of it?

And in the case of the cholem, which many(most?) ashkenazim pronounce as oh like Go, No.
You pronounce it very similar to that, though slightly less pronounced.  Whereas ashkenazim pronounce it like the o in boris.

How does your proounciation there differ with the Sefaradi one. And why do you think the Sefaradim are wrong there, and ashkenazim correct, or more correct?

I would think that if we get totally independent groups, like some ashkenazim, and some Sefaradim, pronouncing it the same, then one might suspect we are onto something. Do any separate Sefaradi group e.g. teimani, pronounce those vowels like the ashkenazim. In contrast to other Sefaradim?

Are teimani called Sefaradi?

I just realised that rabbi david bar bayyim writes his name Daweedh not Doweedh.  But didn`t you say the pattern is-  patach kamatz cholem.   Ah, Oh, O.          So, why not write Doweedh?

And btw, when one says that kamatz is "aw".  Is that aw the o as in boris? Why say "aw"? is the so-called "aw" ashkenazi or sephardi?

[RationalThought110]

In the following post:

          http://jtf.org/forum_english/index.php?topic=17506.msg195965#msg195965


     Could you tell me what's meant by Mashiach Ben Yosef or Moshiach Ben David?

   
       How do you know if someone is from Judah? 

[RationalThought110]

Could you post some of your responses?