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Ask Judea Torah Show 8

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q_q_:
chaim has said that we shouldn't curse jews..

are there exceptions?

q_q_:
there has been some discussion about the issue of teaching torha to christians.

I have read in the talmud bavli, a discussion about it being forbidden for gentiles to learn torah. I understand there is some disagreement, like all agree we can't teach them oral, but some say we can teach them written, and of them, some say only the portions relevant to them - opening parts of genesis.

which is right? are these all talmudic opinions, or are some later things people came up with?

There is a big question about this with the RAMBAM.
I am particularly puzzled about the RAMBAM's attitude. One web link which I shall quote, actually suggests that the RAMBAM changed his mind on the subject of teaching torah to christians.
As I understand it, The RAMBAM  and Rashi disagree on whether christianity is idolatry for gentiles. RAMBAM says it is.
And as I thought it was prohibited to teach torah to idolators. BUT, in a letter, we find that the RAMBAM permits teaching torah to christians, but not to muslims.


The web link says
"Virtually quoting the Talmud verbatim, Maimonides writes in Mishneh Torah: "A gentile who engages (oseq) in the study of the Torah deserves to die (hayyav meetah). He should not engage in the study of anything but their seven commandments alone."10 "
........
"So far, Maimonides is on very solid talmudic grounds.
However, in the enumeration of the mitsvot, which is the prelude to the books of Mishneh Torah, Maimonides writes: "He has commanded us to sanctify the name of G-d ... to proclaim (le-farsem) this true faith to the world."13 Here, of course, lies the "difficult Rambam." For how could one possibly proclaim this true faith to the world without teaching the Torah to the gentiles who inhabit this world?
"
......
"
Further, in a responsum on the very question of teaching the Torah to gentiles, Maimonides writes:

It is permitted (muttar) to teach the com-mandments to Christians (notsrim) and draw them to our law (datenu). But it is not permitted to teach anything from it to Muslims (yisma’elim) because it is known to you about their belief that this Torah [of ours] is not from G-d ... and if one can convince the Christians of the correct interpretation [of Scripture], it is possible (efshar) that they might return to what is good (she-yahzoru la-mutav).15
"

ref- web link
http://www.icjs.org/what/njsp/maimonides.html

q_q_:
Given that you have heard the british accent, kamatz, cholam..
maybe you can explain this with that in mind.

I am not sure about the sephardi patach and kamatz gadol. Are both the same?  if so, is it (british) Cat  or  Thus/bus.

The sheva, in british accent, you've heard, but I didn't really correspond it with a word.  I don't think you've heard these words in a british accent, and I can't say for sure the key part is the same in the american accent. I suppose sheva - in my understanding - corresponds to british accent, abucus, burn.  And the french Le(as oppose to les). British accent-gallery(gah LUH ry), toilet(toi LUHt), LEarn, HErnia(HUR nia), curtain, Briton(bri TUHN). Like the Uh in Uch.
Like Homer's Dur.

Do you agree it is like that, and the same in ashkenazi and sephardi?

Tzvi Ben Roshel1:
Can a Moser be killed without Beit Din's permission/approval?

q_q_:
a religious relative said that jews should wear distinct clothing - he would wear black hat and coat...

He quoted a gemara that what makes a nation distinct, is language, clothing, something else.  But clothing is one of them.

So, he is dressing like all the other religious jews in his area, they should dress the same.

what's your response to that?

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