Torah and Jewish Idea > Torah and Jewish Idea
Ask Judea Torah Show 12
Kahane-Was-Right BT:
Also there appears to be a difficulty in connecting geula to tefillah according to the Yerushalmi custom. (since they are not saying the shema with brachoth before shemoneh esray). What would be the desired mode of action regarding maariv prayer, shema, etc today?
Kahane-Was-Right BT:
As a followup to last week's question, you mentioned that some of the midrashim were written in the middle ages. I am only familiar with the ones you mentioned as well as some of those cited by Rashi (Tanchuma, Sforno, etc). Obviously those cited by Rashi were completed early, at least by the 900's or so. But he also cites Midrash rabba which goes back to tannaic era. And maybe the others he cites go back that far as well. I was wondering, what are the names of those midrashim which appear to be written later but claim an earlier authorship (similar to zohar). And furthermore, is there a midrash rabba for all 5 books of the Torah (ie bereshith rabba, shemoth rabba, etc)? And were all 5 completed in the same era?
Kahane-Was-Right BT:
When is the latest time that a person can daven the shemoneh esray for shacharith (for instance if the person misses the minyan)? And is this time limit for beginning or for completing the shemoneh esray in its entirety (not that it takes that long anyway, but I am wondering)? I have heard that one can daven the shemoneh esray up until 12 noon b'dieved. Is this true? If a person is late for minyan and the time for kriat shema has passed, is it recommended not to say the brachoth of shema but only to recite the 3 paragraphs of shema while wearing tefillin? I have also heard from someone that it is still good to say the shema with the brachoth even though it will not actually fulfill the mitzvah as the time for saying shema has already passed. But they say while it is still morning one can and should do that anyway. What is the halacha regarding these matters when a person is late? Thanks.
q_q_:
I understand there are said to be
5 long vowels, corresponding to 5 short vowels, 3 of which correspond to 3 very short vowels(chataf this and that).
But you pointed out that chirik and chirik yud are not 2 different vowels.
What example did/would you give?
I see that beraishit, has a chirik yud, but we say beraishit, not beraisheet.
Whether we say ih or ee depends on whether it's a closed or open syllable. And one tends to recognize what sounds familiar.
Would you say that the concept of long and short vowels like that is completely wrong? or does it serve some grammatical purpose?
q_q_:
regarding the modern hebrew cholam..
It's a short oh. Who did they take it from?
Sefaradim.. I spoke to one that pronounces 2 Ohs,
short oh, the kamatz katan,
long oh, the cholam.
Do some Sefaradim pronounce it like in modern hebrew and other Sefaradim like a long Oh? If so, which do which?
By the way, I am really asking about Sefaradim here.. and I avoided describing how ashkenazim pronounce it because your experience of ashkenazi pronunciation is american ashkenazi, and it's american! British ashkenazi pronunciation is purer because -significantly- I think we have all the same vowels in our english as exist in hebrew, and furthermore, we don't speak through the nose, or with a twang, like many americans can't avoid. With letters we are in the same boat as americans.
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