JTF.ORG Forum
General Category => General Discussion => Topic started by: Lewinsky Stinks, Dr. Brennan Rocks on March 31, 2007, 01:28:15 AM
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The following comments were placed in Ask JTF. I moved them out because the new rule starting for next week's broadcast is that people may only post their questions for Chaim in the Ask JTF thread.
Being that I don't kiss women before marriage, do you think it would be wrong of me to hug a woman who is not my wife? Is it wrong if I would hug my future wife when we'll be engaged but not yet married? What is worse, hugging or kissing?
(Note Chaim: These are not my two questions, just a reply to Yacov's question.)
I know I am not Chaim and nor am I Jewish, but in Christendom we do consider chaste hugging acceptable... there are no direct scriptures on this matter, but I would say that any polite friendly contact that avoids pressing the woman's chest is considered modest and pure. Hope that was of some help.
Edit: I myself would not mind brief, polite, closed-mouth kisses with my girlfriend, if I shall ever have one (by "girlfriend", I do mean intended future wife, BTW). I have Frenched once and never, ever, ever want to do that again with anybody who is not my wife.
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This thread says April 8th so won't Passover be almost finished by then? Will Chaim see these questions before then?
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So it hasn't even started lol?
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As far as I am concerned a gentile can visit a prostitute and still be righteous before the eyes of the Alm-ghty.
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Sorry about that, Yacov. Didn't mean to clutter that thread up.
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As far as I am concerned a gentile can visit a prostitute and still be righteous before the eyes of the Alm-ghty.
FOTL, you are an insane fruit. :o ::)
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As far as I am concerned a gentile can visit a prostitute and still be righteous before the eyes of the Alm-ghty.
FOTL, you are an insane fruit. :o ::)
I second that! ::)
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Re: "...As far as I am concerned a gentile can visit a prostitute and still be righteous before the eyes of the Alm-ghty..."
What concerns me about this statement, Fruit old boy, is this...
If the gentile doesn't pay the prostitute, but rather charges it on his credit card, can the gentile honestly claim in a court of law, that he (or she) has never paid money in exchange for sex? (by definition, the gentile has only received sex on credit!)