Author Topic: The booty of the allies of Haman vs. the House of Haman that Mordechai Got  (Read 2404 times)

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Offline edu

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In the book of Esther 9:16 after the allies of Haman are defeated it states the Jews did not send their hands against the spoils [of the war]
But Mordechai in chapter 8 does accept Haman's house.
Why in the first case they don't take the wealth of the enemy but in Mordechai's case the enemy's wealth is taken?
Although I have an answer I prefer to hear yours for the time being.

Offline muman613

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Shalom Edu,

I read your question and have yet to find an answer. Meanwhile you could supply us with your answer and we can consider it...

You shall make yourself the Festival of Sukkoth for seven days, when you gather in [the produce] from your threshing floor and your vat.And you shall rejoice in your Festival-you, and your son, and your daughter, and your manservant, and your maidservant, and the Levite, and the stranger, and the orphan, and the widow, who are within your cities
Duet 16:13-14

Offline edu

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Rashi on Esther 9:10 said they didn't take the money of the allies of Haman, so as not to arouse the jealousy or envy of Achashverosh, over the new wealth.
In other words, it was a political consideration not to take the war booty.

We also find that David did take benefit from the war booty that he captured when he fought Amalek, so this is a precedent that it is allowed.
But then the question arises, if so why was G-d mad that Shaul{Saul} took part of the sheep from the war booty of Amalek. Is it because the prophet specifically told him not to do it in this situation, or is there some deeper reason which sometimes allows us to take from Amalek war booty and sometimes no.
I have yet to find the answer.

Offline Kahane-Was-Right BT

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In the book of Esther 9:16 after the allies of Haman are defeated it states the Jews did not send their hands against the spoils [of the war]
But Mordechai in chapter 8 does accept Haman's house.
Why in the first case they don't take the wealth of the enemy but in Mordechai's case the enemy's wealth is taken?
Although I have an answer I prefer to hear yours for the time being.

Well, from the sounds of it, the first scenario is national-scale or a matter of army/organizational policy, which could be problematic and/or immoral, depending on the circumstances.   Whereas the second instance is more of a personal and individual situation by the leader and not his "troops" or the masses of Jews under his guidance.  After his conflict with haman, Mordecai seems to be within his rights to extract personal spoils from his victory over his nemesis.   Similarly in the ancient world, some Roman generals used to acquire the severed head of their foe on a spike and display it somewhere.   Certainly they did not acquire the heads of all combatants on a spike, nor did the common soldier acquire heads on spikes for display purposes.