How come the "Palestinians" who paint their whole history as perpetual victims have no traces of the languages of who they were "occupied" by like the rest of Arabs and other societies? For example, there is still French speakers in N. Africa and Lebanon everywhere but you never hear of the Arabs in "Palestine" having a Turkish, English, or Latin influence on their language. I'm not sure if I'm wording this right but it is a genuine thought I had the other day...