Zenith,
I will try once again to explain to you these Jewish concepts. But often it seems to me you are trying to approach this from a very non-Jewish, and even from a Christian perspective. In that case you will absolutely not be able to make sense of what we write concerning the Ruach HaKodesh and the Shekinah.
A few points here:
1. I am not a Jew, did not grow in a Jewish environment, so it is quite obvious that I cannot approach things from a Jewish perspective (to approach things from a Jewish perspective means to
know the Jewish perspective regarding the subject, and I can't know it unless you explain it to me; And I cannot agree with it unless you give me good logic for it). I approach things from my perspective. I don't quite care if it is a Christian perspective (or a specific Christian Orthodox perspective or a Catholic perspective or other) or a Jewish perspective or an Islamic perspective as I care what the Tanakh itself specifies about it.
2. Please tell me what "Shekinah" means. I'm learning Hebrew, it lasts a long time, I don't know what this particular word means. I know that Ruach means "spirit", "breath", "wind". Please tell me what "Shekinah" literally means, and perhaps a verse where I can find it in the Tanakh.
3. I'm curios of something. It seems that "Kodesh" means "holyness" while "Kadosh" means "holy". So "Ruach HaKodesh" should mean "Spirit of holyness" and in Psalm 51.13 it seems to be literally translated as "Spirit of Thy holyness" (i.e. "Ruach Kodshekha", unless I've transliterated wrong). Am I right?
4. You said "In that case you will absolutely not be able to make sense of what we write concerning the Ruach HaKodesh". Can you not show me the Jewish perspective, from the Tanakh? Shouldn't the correct perspective be found from the Tanakh? Otherwise how can it be known that it is the correct perspective? I guess even the sages have derived their views from the Tanakh.
First, you are aware that Jews believe that G-d, Hashem our L-rd, is not corporeal, that Hashem has no body, no manifestation in this world. Hashem is eternal, infinite, and we are not able to even begin to understand what Hashem 'Is'.
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We call this Anthropomorphism, the attribution of human characteristics to something which is not human. The Torah is replete with statements like "Hashems strong arm" and "Hashem Spoke" when we know that Hashem has no Arm, and he has no mouth to speak. Obviously these anthropomorphisms must be understood in a way that is cognizant of the fact that Hashem has no body, no corporeality.
I am not very certain about how/what G-d is, exactly. And I am not quite certain about what you intended to tell me.
1. You mean that G-d did not
speak to His prophets, but they only imagined? Or that they were very religious and so whatever they've been thinking about should be considered as from G-d? I'd appreciate if you tell me your view on the "divine inspiration".
2. I know that in the Tanakh it is spoken "G-d's arm"/"G-d's hand" and it means "G-d's power". But about speaking, that does seem to contradict all the Tanakh: You seem to 'transform' G-d into a "force" of the Universe, fearing that otherwise it would sound "anthropomorphic". We know that "reason"/"thinking" is a human attribute, so do you believe that G-d has this attribute too?
Now, my view:
Gen 1.26 "And G-d said, "Let us make man in our image, after our likeness". That is both "image" and "likeness". And in Gen 3.22 it is written that "Behold man has become like one of us, having the ability of knowing good and evil". Didn't G-d make man similar to Him? I mean, things like having reason, memory, conscience, etc.?
You quoted:
What is the meaning of "in the image of Hashem"? Do we really look like Him? Or does He look like us? That, we know, is utterly absurd. He has no image.
If G-d did not assume a form/an image so that He could be seen by His angels (hosts of heaven), then tell me, why is it written "in our image, after our likeness"? (both image and likeness - anyone can tell a difference between them)
Then, could G-d not assume a form/an image so that He would be 'seen' by His angels? I mean, they can see one another, but G-d to be invisible to them?
1 Kings 22.19 states "I saw the Lord seated on His throne, and all the host of heaven were standing by Him on His right and on His left." - did he see an
invisible G-d on an imaginary throne, and all the host of heavens (we should call them "angels") standing by the right and by the left of an infinitely big, invisible G-d (He fills the entire universe)? Please tell me, what did the prophet see?? I do believe that G-d does not have a "manifestation in this world" in such a way so that people would be able to find Him if they seek where they should (as people cannot find the heaven of G-d and the angels, no matter how much and where they seek). But that doesn't mean, for instance, that G-d cannot make a certain angel to be manifested in this world, so that people would see him.
We also read Exodus 33.19-23: did G-d trick Moses that he would see Him (v.23)? what did Moses see?
In later Jewish literature, the “Holy Spirit” is connected to a spirit of Prophecy. But either way, there is no reason to make the assumption that, somehow, this Holy spirit of G-d is a separate entity. There is no support for the concept of the trinity in the Hebrew Scriptures.
I am curios of something: please tell me how you understand the Christian "Holy Trinity" and polytheism (many gods). I suppose, but I'm not sure, that you call the Christians "polytheists" (I know that muslims do that, so I suppose you do that too, though I'm not sure).
The literal hebrew word is "your face", but since G-d lacks a body, it is anthromorphic term, which the translator that you quoted interpreted as the term, your presence.
I've read in a place "your face", but I thought that perhaps it is translated wrong. So I used the version of chabad.org. Anyway, I sincerely don't agree with "translation & interpretation" when the Tanakh is supposed to be translated into a language. I think it would have been correct to translate it as "your face", rather than "your presence", though it is understood that it means "you cannot hide away from G-d".
I don't remember to have ever read in the Tanakh "G-d's spirit of wrath". Please give me a verse if you know it. I know that in the Tanakh only men are described with spirits of X.
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In Exodus 15:8 the Hebrew is "and with your Ruach"
In Job 4:9 the Hebrew is "and from the Ruach"
I have already provided above how the translator interpreted Ruach in those contexts.
Given these precedents it is perfectly legitimate for Metzudat Dovid to interpret the word Ruach in Psalms 139 as G-d's Ruach of anger
First off, you've put from yourself in Psalm 139 "G-d's spirit
of anger". It is not in the text. I am certain that in the Psalm 139 it is not spoken about "G-d's anger" - read the psalm and see that in it David glorifies G-d rather than saying "I obey you out of fear because your anger if everywhere!"
If these are the verses that can be claimed to contain "G-d's spirit of X", then it seems "G-d's spirit of X" is found nowhere in the Tanakh. In those instances, it should better be translated as "G-d's breath" rather than "G-d's Spirit". Moreover, it is not written "G-d's spirit
of anger/mercy/etc.". If indeed "anger", "fear", etc. are
spirits as it is depicted in 1 Kings 22.20-23 then it is impossible for G-d to be 'filled' with a spirit of "anger", or a spirit of "fear", because these spirits are His servants. And therefore, you should not be able to find in the Tanakh that "G-d is filled with a spirit of X", or "the Lord is filled with a spirit of X", or any similar thing.