the arabs also paid blood for it in the 7th centery .
Why does the fact that jews lived there befor arabs give tham the right to control it ?
As Newman said, the Jews(Zionist Organization) paid for the land of Israel-we'll parts of it anyway. Then the arabs tried to exterminate the Jewish bought lands. But, to their surprise, lost the wars,-and as in all wars, the Jews rightfully claimed the lands lost by the arabs.
Therefore, the acquired land, is rightfully Israel's.
Take for example Paraguay and Bolivia. Bolivia was much stronger, and decided to invade Paraguay in order to annex (steal) the northern territories of Paraguay. To Bolivia's horror, it's army was defeated! The Paraguayians pushed north into Bolivia-until a peace treaty was signed. Paraguay was now in possesion of Bolivian territory, and rightfully annexed it.
This is just one war referenced, and if other countries are allowed by international law to do this, then why should Israel be of any exception.
As for the Arabs in the occupied territories:
When the arabs invaded tiny Israel, the palistinians were asked to evacuate Israel for their own security-up until the Jews were exterminated, and the palestinians could now steal the possesions and lands of the Jews. The Pali's refused, and as a result are today in the sitaution they are. Israel does not rule over the arabs in palestine, but under their own elected government. Should those people come under the control of the Israeli government, Israel has a RIGHt to have control over them-and if the palestinians don't like civilised control over themselfs-they can always leave
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Hope this helps Dexter?