Sdom and Amorah, prior to it’s destruction, was described to be like the garden of Eden (and as it was written right after that) like the prosperous areas of Egypt.
I know there was an emphasis made about Sdom and Amorah for a good reason. However, I always that if one was going to emphasize something like that, you would start with describing it as being like Egypt AND THEN the Garden of Eden, which was much more perfect than Egypt.
Does anyone have any insight to why the other order? (It seems to be so insignificant, but it caught my eye on Saturday)